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"But he is equally adamant that, even as a Jew, he is not under the Law of Moses."

I don't follow your argument here, can reference a passage?

Shane Kastler

I didn't word that very well. What I meant was as an "ethnic" Jew who was now in Christ he was not under the Law. So if a "Jewish" Christian wasn't under the Law there was no way a "Gentile" Christian would be. Hopefully that clarifies it. Thanks for pointing that out. And if I didn't answer your question, let me know.

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